ITSM Guiding 4D SVS SVC Practice Others All

All

1. Which guiding principle leads to a faster response to customer needs by timeboxing activities and learning from the outputs of previous activities?
A. Focus on value
B. Progress iteratively with feedback
C. Collaborate and promote visibility
D. Optimize and automate
(386) B
2. Which practice has a purpose that includes maximizing the number of successful additions, modifications, or removals of anything that could have an effect on a service?
A. Service request management
B. Incident management
C. Service desk
D. Change enablement
(387) D
3. In which situation will incident management USUALLY use a separate process?
A. Where no target resolution time exists
B. For low impact incidents
C. Where the cause must be diagnosed
D. For information security incidents
(388) D
4. Which practice minimizes the impact on normal service operation by managing resources in response to unplanned reductions in service quality?
A. Incident management
B. Change enablement
C. Service level management
D. Continual improvement
(389) A
5. Which practice makes use of methods from Lean, Agile and DevOps?
A. Service desk
B. Continual improvement
C. Problem management
D. Incident management
(390) B
6. Identify the missing word in the following sentence.

Sponsor is the role that authorizes budget for service [?].
A. value
B. consumption
C. management
D. provision
(391) B
7. Which statement about service offerings is CORRECT?
A. The same product can be used as a basis for more than one service offering
B. Service offerings include the transfer of goods from the consumer to the provider
C. Service offerings describe how providers and consumers cooperate to co-create value
D. Each service should be described to consumers as a single service offering
(392) A
8. Which is a use of a change schedule?
A. Speeding up the planning and authorization of emergency changes
B. Providing information about deployed changes to help manage incidents and problems
C. Providing a means of initiating and assessing normal changes
D. Tracking and managing improvement ideas from identification through to final action
(393) C
9. Which statement about value streams is CORRECT?
A. Each value stream must include all six value chain activities
B. Each value stream must be designed for a specific scenario
C. Each value stream must include all 34 ITIL practices
D. Each value stream must include suppliers or partners
(394) B
10. Which is part of the value proposition of a service?
A. Costs removed from the consumer by the service
B. Costs imposed on the consumer by the service
C. Outputs of the service received by the consumer
D. Risks imposed on the consumer by the service
(395) A
11. Why should a service level manager carry out regular service reviews?
A. To ensure that agreements are written simply and are easy to understand
B. To collect information about service consumer goals and objectives
C. To capture information about service issues and performance against agreed goals
D. To ensure continual improvement of services, so that they meet the evolving needs of service consumers
(396) D
12. A flaw in an application could cause a service to fail. IT staff are actively analysing the application to try and understand what is going on.

What is the correct name for this type of flaw?
A. Problem
B. Incident
C. Event
D. Known error
(397) A
13. Which value chain activity ensures that ongoing service activity meets user expectations?
A. Plan
B. Engage
C. Obtain/build
D. Deliver and support
(398) D
14. Which practice's purpose includes creating closer, more collaborative relationships?
A. Supplier management
B. Information security management
C. Release management
D. Service configuration management
(399) A
15. Which TWO are inputs to the service value system?

1. Demand
2. Products
3. Value
4. Opportunity
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
(400) D
16. What role would be MOST suitable for someone with lots of experience working in IT and business roles?

They also have experience of managing relationships with various stakeholders, including suppliers and business managers.
A. Service level manager
B. Service desk agent
C. Change authority
D. Problem analyst
(401) A
17. Which is the addition, modification or removal of anything that could have an effect on services?
A. A change
B. An event
C. An incident
D. A problem
(402) A
18. Which guiding principle recommends consideration of the four dimensions in order to make something as effective and as useful as it needs to be?
A. Focus on value
B. Start where you are
C. Think and work holistically
D. Optimize and automate
(403) C
19. Which practice is MOST LIKELY to make use of artificial intelligence, robotic process automation, and chatbots?
A. Service desk
B. Continual improvement
C. Problem management
D. Incident management
(404) A
20. What is a problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved?
A. Workaround
B. Incident
C. Known error
D. Event
(405) C
21. Which is described by the 'organizations and people' dimension of service management?
A. Workflows and controls
B. Communication and collaboration
C. Inputs and outputs
D. Contracts and agreements
(406) B
22. Which facilitates outcomes that customers want to achieve?
A. Service
B. Warranty
C. Organization
D. IT asset
(407) A
23. Which practice recommends that organizations develop competencies in techniques such as strength, weakness, opportunity, and threat (SWOT) analysis, and balanced scorecards?
A. Incident management
B. Continual improvement
C. Service request management
D. Change enablement
(408) B
24. Which ITIL concept helps an organization to make good decisions?
A. Four dimensions of service management
B. Guiding principles
C. Service value chain
D. Practices
(409) B
25. Which is a recommendation for applying the guiding principle 'keep it simple and practical'?
A. Communicate in a way the audience can hear
B. Sometimes nothing from the current state can be re-used
C. If a practice is easier to follow it is more likely to be adopted
D. Fast does not mean incomplete
(410) C
26. Which practice has a purpose that includes responding to conditions that could lead to potential faults or incidents?
A. Incident management
B. Service request management
C. Monitoring and event management
D. Change enablement
(411) C
27. What role would be MOST suitable for a new graduate with great levels of empathy and understanding of business issues?

They also have good communication skills, high emotional intelligence, and a broad understanding of IT technology.
A. Service level manager
B. Service desk agent
C. Change authority
D. Problem analyst
(412) B
28. Which practice nurtures links with stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels?
A. Supplier management
B. Relationship management
C. Continual improvement
D. Service level management
(413) B
29. Which is a way of applying the guiding principle 'focus on value'?
A. Understanding how service consumers use services
B. Comprehending the whole, but doing something
C. Recognizing the complexity of systems
D. Doing fewer things, but doing them better
(414) A
30. Which of the following is NOT recommended by the guiding principle 'start where you are'?
A. Asking questions that appear to be stupid
B. Identifying what is available to be leveraged
C. Building something completely new
D. Collecting data directly from the source
(415) C
31. Which is a use of a continual improvement register?
A. Planning changes, assisting in communication, avoiding conflicts, and assigning resources
B. Selecting the right method, model or technique for identifying improvements
C. Tracking and managing improvement ideas from identification through to final action
D. Describing the services designed to meet the needs of a consumer group
(416) C
32. Which practice uses pre-defined, standardized procedures to enable fulfilment times to be clearly communicated?
A. Incident management
B. Service level management
C. Problem management
D. Service request management
(417) D
33. Which TWO of the following are considerations of change enablement?

1. Managing the people aspects of change
2. Ensuring that organizational transformations are successful
3. Maximizing the number of successful service changes
4. Ensuring that changes are properly assessed
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
(418) C
34. How can a service consumer contribute to the reduction of risk?
A. By providing the service in accordance with requirements
B. By ensuring that the service provider's resources are correctly configured
C. By fully understanding their own requirements for the service
D. By managing the detailed level of risk on behalf of the service provider
(419) C
35. In which case would a problem be logged?
A. When the cause is identified but not resolved
B. After analysis of error information from a supplier
C. When a user reports an unplanned service interruption
D. After a workaround is identified and documented
(420) B
36. Identify the missing word in the following sentence.

The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of [?], and the CIs that support them, is available when and where it is needed.
A. organizations
B. outcomes
C. relationships
D. services
(421) D
37. Which practice helps to ensure that the services delivered to customers are aligned with their needs?
A. Service request management
B. Change enablement
C. Problem management
D. Service level management
(422) D
38. Which service request management decisions require that policies are established?
A. Deciding how degradations of service are resolved
B. Deciding how to handle service requests where the steps are unknown
C. Deciding which service requests require approval
D. Deciding when workarounds should be used
(423) C
39. Which dimension of service management considers how activities are coordinated?
A. Organizations and people
B. Information and technology
C. Partners and suppliers
D. Value streams and processes
(424) D
40. A user contacts the service desk to ask how they can create a report.

Which practice is MOST LIKELY to contribute to resolving this issue?
A. Incident management
B. Service level management
C. Service request management
D. Change enablement
(425) C
41. Staff in an IT organization are very busy, mostly carrying out tasks that add little or no value to the organization or its customers.

Which guiding principle recommends that the unnecessary work should be eliminated?
A. Keep it simple and practical
B. Think and work holistically
C. Start where you are
D. Progress iteratively with feedback
(426) A
42. Which practice has a purpose that includes the management of financially valuable components that can contribute to the delivery of an IT service?
A. Deployment management
B. Continual improvement
C. Monitoring and event management
D. IT asset management
(427) D
43. Which practice ensures that service actions, that are a normal part of service delivery, are effectively handled?
A. Incident management
B. Service level management
C. Problem management
D. Service request fulfilment
(428) D
44. A service will be unavailable for the next two hours for unplanned maintenance.

Which practice is MOST LIKELY to be involved in managing this?
A. Incident management
B. Problem management
C. Change enablement
D. Service request management
(429) C
45. Which practice is MOST associated with the use of empathy to understand users?
A. Service desk
B. Continual improvement
C. Service level management
D. Change enablement
(430) A
46. Identify the missing word in the following sentence.

A customer defines the [?] for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption.
A. requirements
B. resources
C. suppliers
D. products
(431) A
47. Which of the following ensures that a service provider and a service consumer continually co-create value?
A. Service consumption
B. Service offerings
C. Change enablement
D. Service relationship management
(432) D
48. What type of change is often used for resolving incidents or implementing security patches?
A. Standard change
B. Normal change
C. Emergency change
D. Change model
(433) C
49. Which of the following includes configuring components and activities to facilitate outcomes for stakeholders?
A. Service relationship management
B. Service consumption
C. The service value system
D. The 'release management' practice
(434) C
50. Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?
A. Outcomes enable products to be delivered to a stakeholder
B. An outcome defines the amount of money spent on technology for a service
C. An outcome depends on at least one output to deliver a result
D. Outcomes provide assurance to stakeholders on how a service performs
(435) C
51. Which phase of problem management includes the regular assessment of the effectiveness of workarounds?
A. Problem identification
B. Problem control
C. Error control
D. Problem analysis
(436) B
52. Which practice performs reviews to ensure that services continue to meet the needs of the customers?
A. Monitoring and event management
B. Service level management
C. Change enablement
D. Service desk
(437) B
53. Which service value chain activity deals with the purchase of new products?
A. Engage
B. Obtain/build
C. Plan
D. Improve
(438) B
54. Which of the following is included in the purpose of the 'continual improvement' practice?
A. The restoration of normal service operation as quickly as possible
B. The establishment of links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels
C. The alignment of the organization's practices and services with changing business needs
D. The reduction of the likelihood and impact of incidents
(439) C
55. Which is included in the purpose of the 'improve' value chain activity?
A. Ensuring the continual improvement of practices across all value chain activities
B. Ensuring that services continually meet expectations for quality, costs, and time to market
C. Ensuring a shared understanding of the improvement direction for services across the organization
D. Ensuring continual engagement and good relationships with all stakeholders
(440) A
56. Which is the BEST type of resource for investigating complex incidents?
A. Self-help systems
B. Knowledgeable support staff
C. Detailed work instructions
D. Disaster recovery plans
(441) B
57. What is defined as "any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service"?
A. An event
B. An IT asset
C. A configuration item
D. A change
(442) C
58. Which TWO of the following statements are MOST associated with the 'optimize and automate' guiding principle?
1. It is important to assess which method of communication is appropriate for each type of stakeholder.
2. Complex systems should be designed with an understanding of how the components' parts are related.
3. Organizations should consider whether technology could improve the efficiency of manual processes.
4. It is important to understand the organization's objectives when assessing the impact of potential improvements.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
(443) B
59. Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?
A. Emergency changes are low risk and well understood
B. Authorization of emergency changes may be deferred until after implementation
C. It is necessary to complete all documentation before an emergency change is implemented
D. Emergency changes are not usually recorded in the change schedule
(444) D
60. Which is the definition of an IT asset?
A. Any financially valuable component that contributes to a service
B. Any request from a user that is a normal part of service delivery
C. Any component that needs to be managed to deliver a service
D. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service
(445) A
61. Which dimension of service management includes consideration of the type of relationship required with other organizations involved in the design and delivery of services?
A. Organizations and people
B. Information and technology
C. Partners and suppliers
D. Value streams and processes
(446) C
62. What is defined as "the role that uses services"?
A. Service consumer
B. Customer
C. User
D. Sponsor
(447) C
63. Which is an example of a problem control activity?
A. Reviewing incident records to identify trends
B. Implementing a technical fix to resolve an issue
C. Re-assessing a known error to understand the ongoing impact
D. Documenting the steps in a workaround
(448) D
64. What should remain constant within an organization, even when the organization's objectives change?
A. Outputs
B. Guiding principles
C. Service offerings
D. Outcomes
(449) D
65. Which is a key element of the 'think and work holistically' guiding principle?
A. Assessing which procedures can be re-used when improving a service
B. Understanding the methods applicable to complex systems
C. Eliminating metrics which do not contribute to achieving an objective
D. Using technology for standard tasks to give people time for complex activities
(450) B
66. Which practice has a purpose that includes managing authentication and nonrepudiation?
A. Information security management
B. Supplier management
C. Service configuration management
D. Relationship management
(451) A
67. Which of the following is the MOST important for effective incident management?
A. Collaboration tools and techniques
B. Balanced scorecard review
C. Automated pipelines
D. A variety of access channels
(452) A
68. Which practice handles all pre-defined user-initiated service actions?
A. Deployment management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Service request management
(453) D
69. Which is the MOST important stakeholder group that a service provider needs to collaborate with?
A. Suppliers
B. Customers
C. Relationship managers
D. Developers
(454) B
70. Which activity is NOT recommended by the 'start where you are' guiding principle?
A. Involving people who are not familiar with a service when observing and assessing its activities
B. Applying risk management when considering to introduce new processes
C. Using source data to avoid any unintentional data distortion found in reports
D. Discarding existing processes before assessing their usefulness
(455) D
71. 31. For which purpose would the continual improvement practice use a SWOT analysis?
A. Understanding the current state
B. Defining the future desired state
C. Tracking and managing ideas
D. Ensuring everyone actively participates
(456) A
72. Which TWO types of competence are MOST important for service desk staff?

1. Knowledge of business processes
2. Collaboration skills
3. Advanced technical knowledge
4. Workflow design skills
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
(457) A
73. Which is CORRECT about change authorization?
A. A change authority is assigned each time a standard change is requested
B. Emergency changes are authorized by the technician making the change
C. Assignment of the change authority is based on the change type and model
D. The change authority will ensure changes are authorized after they are deployed
(458) C
74. What term is used to describe the functionality of a service?
A. Output
B. Outcome
C. Utility
D. Warranty
(459) C
75. Which practice ensures that a variety of access channels are available for users to report issues?
A. Service desk
B. Service level management
C. Incident management
D. Change enablement
(460) A
76. Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.

The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and [?].
A. events
B. changes
C. IT assets
D. known errors
(461) D
77. Which is a key requirement for successful service level agreements (SLAs)?
A. They should be written using language and terms which all parties will understand
B. They should be based on system-based metrics which are useful to the service provider
C. They should be carried forward, unchanged, from one year to the next to enable consistent service
D. They should avoid ambiguous targets such as those relating to user experience
(462) A
78. Which is an example of a service request?
A. A request for normal operation to be restored
B. A request to implement a security patch
C. A request for access to a file
D. A request to investigate the cause of an incident
(463) C
79. Which of the four dimensions focuses on managing data in compliance with industry regulations?
A. Partners and suppliers
B. Organizations and people
C. Value streams and processes
D. Information and technology
(464) D
80. When using the ITIL continual improvement model, which information should be produced by an organization in order to understand where the organization is now?
A. Business objectives
B. Improvement plans
C. Assessment results
D. KPI reports
(465) C