ITSM 4D Guiding SVS SVC P1 P2 P3 Others All

All

1. A service is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific [?] and risks.
A. Information.
B. Utility.
C. Warranty.
D. Costs.
D
2. Which statement about Service Desks is CORRECT?
A. The Service Desk should work in close collaboration with support and development teams.
B. The Service Desk should rely on self-service portals instead of escalation to support teams.
C. The Service Desk should remain isolated from technical support teams.
D. The Service Desk should escalate all technical issues to support and development teams.
A
3. Which describes a set of defined steps for implementing improvements?
A. The 'improve' value chain activity.
B. The Continual Improvement register.
C. The Continual Improvement model.
D. The 'engage' value chain activity.
C
4. Which practice provides a single point of contact for users?
A. Incident Management.
B. Change Control.
C. Service Desk.
D. Service Request Management.
C
5. Which activity captures the demand for Incident Resolution and service requests?
A. Change Control.
B. Problem Management.
C. Service Desk.
D. Service catalogue management.
C
6. What are the types of asset management?
A. IT Asset Management and software asset management.
B. Operational and technical management.
C. IT Asset Management and technical management.
D. Operational management and IT Asset Management.
A
7. What is typically needed to assign complex incidents to support groups?
A. The incident priority.
B. The incident category.
C. A change schedule.
D. A self-help tool.
B
8. What type of change is MOST likely to be managed by the Service Request Management practice?
A. An Emergency Change.
B. A normal change.
C. An application change.
D. A standard change.
D
9. Which activity is part of the Continual Improvement practice?
A. Identifying the cause of incidents and recommending related improvements.
B. Authorizing changes to implement improvements.
Logging and managing incidents that result in C.improvement opportunities.
D. Making business cases for improvement action.
D
10. Which statement about Emergency Changes is CORRECT?
A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change quickly.
B. The assessment and Authorization of Emergency Changes is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly.
C. Emergency Changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests.
D. Emergency Changes must be fully documented before Authorization and implementation.
B
11. Which is a key consideration for the guiding principle 'keep it simple and practical'?
A. Try to create a solution for every exception.
B. Start with a complex solution, then simplify.
C. Understand how each element contributes to value creation.
D. Ignore the conflicting objectives of different stakeholders.
B
12. What should all Continual Improvement decisions be based on?
A. Accurate and carefully analysed data.
B. Details of how services are measured.
C. A recent maturity assessment.
D. An up-to-date balanced scorecard.
C
13. Which is the purpose of the Monitoring and Event Management practice?
A. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services is available when and where it is needed.
B. To systematically observe services and service components, and record and report selected changes of state.
C. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business.
D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible.
B
14. Which is the CORRECT approach for managing a large improvement initiative as smaller iterations?
A. Each iteration should be designed before starting the initiative and implemented without feedback.
B. Feedback should only be taken into account when one iteration fails to meet its objective.
C. Feedback should be reduced for large improvements as it is unlikely that circumstances will change.
D. Each iteration should be continually re-evaluated based on feedback.
D
15. How should automation be implemented?
A. By initially concentrating on the most complex tasks.
B. By optimizing as much as possible first.
C. By replacing human intervention wherever possible.
D. By replacing the existing tools first..
C
16. What are 'engage', 'plan' and 'improve' examples of?
A. Service value chain activities.
B. Service Level Management.
C. Service value chain inputs.
D. Change Control.
A
17. What is the starting point for optimization?
A. Standardizing practices and services.
B. Determining where the most positive impact would be.
C. Securing stakeholder engagement.
D. Understanding the vision and objectives of the organization.
D
18. Arrange the following steps of software lifecycle in correct order. *1. Retire *2. Test *3. Operate *4. Deploy *5. Ideation *6. Develop *7. Design.
A. Ideation, Design, Develop, Deploy, Test, Operate, Retire.
B. Retire, Test, Operate, Deploy, Ideation, Develop, Design.
C. Ideation, Test, Develop, Deploy, Design, Operate, Retire.
D. None of the above.
A
19. When should the effectiveness of a problem workaround be assessed?
A. Whenever the workaround is used.
B. Whenever the problem is resolved.
C. Whenever the workaround becomes a known error.
D. Whenever the problem is prioritized.
A
20. Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?
A. Service Configuration Management.
B. Problem Management.
C. Service Level Management.
D. Change Control.
D
21. What is an output?
A. A possible event that could cause harm or loss.
B. Something created by carrying out an activity.
C. A result for a stakeholder.
D. A change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item.
B
22. The use of [?] should support, not replace what is observed, when using the 'start where you are1 guiding principle.
A. Plans.
B. Measurement.
C. Process.
D. Tools.
B
23. Which ITIL practice has a purpose that includes reducing the likelihood of incidents?
A. Change Control.
B. Continual Improvement.
C. Problem Management.
D. Service Desk.
C
24. What should be done for every problem?
A. It should have a workaround to reduce the impact.
B. It should be prioritized based on its potential impact and probability.
C. It should be resolved so that it can be closed.
D. It should be diagnosed to identify possible solutions.
B
25. In which step of the Continual Improvement model is an improvement plan implemented?
A. What is the vision?.
B. How do we get there?
C. Take action.
D. Did we get there?
C
26. Which is NOT a key focus of the 'information and technology' dimension?
A. Workflow management and inventory systems.
B. Communication systems and knowledge bases.
C. Roles and responsibilities.
D. Security and compliance.
C
27. Which describes outcomes?
A. Tangible or intangible deliverables.
B. Results desired by a stakeholder.
C. Configuration of an organization's resources.
D. Functionality offered by a product or service.
B
28. Which of the following is an example of incident?
A. A backup server is being rebooted while services are running on the primary server.
B. An application is not available during the business hours.
C. A user has requested access to a shared repository.
D. A user wants to reset the password of a server.
B
29. What is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks?
A. Service management.
B. Continual Improvement.
C. A service.
D. An IT asset.
C
30. What is the purpose of the Information Security Management practice?
A. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business.
B. To observe services and service components.
C. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services is available when and where it is needed.
D. To plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets.
A
31. What should be used to set user expectations for request fulfilment times?
A. The consumer demand for the service.
B. The time that the customer indicates for service delivery.
. The service levels of the supplier.
D. The time needed to realistically deliver the service.
D
32. Which competencies are required by the Service Level Management practice?
A. Problem investigation and resolution.
B. Incident Analysis and Prioritization.
C. Business analysis and commercial management.
D. Balanced scorecard reviews and maturity assessment.
C
33. Which is the BEST example of a standard change?
A. The review and Authorization of a change requested by a customer.
B. The implementation of a critical software patch in response to a vendor security issue.
C. The installation of a software application in response to a service request.
D. The replacement of a component in response to a major incident.
C
34. Which of the following can be used to access Service Desks?
A. Phone calls.
B. Text and social media messaging.
C. Email.
D. All of the above.
D
35. Which of these should be logged and managed as a problem?
A. Trend analysis shows a large number of similar incidents.
B. A user requests delivery of a laptop.
C. A Monitoring tool detects a change of state for a service.
D. Continual Improvement needs to prioritize an improvement opportunity.
A
36. What should be done to determine the appropriate metrics for measuring a new service?
A. Measuring the performance over the first six months, and basing a solution on the results.
B. Asking customers to provide numerical targets that meet their needs.
C. Using operational data to provide detailed service reports.
D. Asking customers open questions to establish their requirements.
D
37. Which guiding principle recommends using the minimum number of steps necessary to achieve an objective?
A. Progress iteratively with feedback.
B. Think and work holistically.
C. Keep it simple and practical.
D. Focus on value.
C
38. Which dimension includes activities and workflows?
A. Value streams and processes.
B. Partners and suppliers.
C. Information and technology.
D. Organizations and people.
A
39. Which describes a CORRECT approach to change Authorization?

A. Changes included in the change schedule are pre-authorized and do not need additional Authorization.
B. Normal changes should be assessed and authorized before they are deployed.
C. Emergency Changes should be authorized by as many people as possible to reduce risk.
D. Normal changes are typically implemented as service requests and authorized by the Service Desk.
B
40. How should an organization adopt Continual Improvement methods?
A. Use a new method for each improvement the organization handles.
B. Select a few key methods for the types of improvement that the organization handles.
C. Build the capability to use as many improvement methods as possible.
D. Select a single method for all improvements that the organization handles.
B
41. A known error is a problem that has been [?] and has not been resolved.
A. Closed.
B. Logged.
C. Analysed.
D. Escalated.
C
42. Which dimension includes a workflow management system?
A. Value streams and processes.
B. Partners and suppliers.
C. Information and technology.
D. Organizations and people.
C
43. Which is a purpose of the Service Desk practice?
A. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents.
B. To capture demand for Incident Resolution and service requests.
C. To set clear business-based targets for service performance.
D. To maximize the number of successful IT changes by ensuring risks are properly assessed.
B
44. Which practice identifies metrics that reflect a customer experience of a service?
A. Continual Improvement.
B. Service Level Management.
C. Service Desk.
D. Problem Management.
B
45. Which statement about a service value stream is CORRECT?
A. It uses prescriptive inputs and outputs.
B. It is a value chain activity.
C. It integrates practices for a specific scenario.
D. It is used to provide governance.
C
46. Which guiding principle recommends coordinating all dimensions of service management?
A. Start where you are.
B. Think and work holistically.
C. Keep it simple and practical.
D. Progress iteratively with feedback.
B
47. Which statement about the steps to fulfill a service request is CORRECT?
A. They should be complex and detailed.
B. They should be well-known and proven.
C. They should include incident handling.
D. They should be brief and simple.
B
48. Which practice has a purpose that includes aligning the organization's practices and services with changing business needs?
A. Relationship Management.
B. Continual Improvement.
C. Service Configuration Management.
D. Service Level Management.
B
49. How should the workflow for a new service request be designed?
A. Use a single workflow for all types of service request.
B. Leverage existing workflows whenever possible.
C. Use different workflows for each type of service request.
D. Avoid workflows for simple service requests.
B
50. Which statement about costs is CORRECT?
A. Costs removed from the consumer are part of service consumption.
B. Costs imposed on the consumer are costs of service utility.
C. Costs removed from the consumer are part of the value proposition.
D. Costs imposed on the consumer are costs of service warranty.
C
51. Which practice uses techniques such as SWOT analysis, balanced scorecard reviews, and maturity assessments?
A. Incident Management.
B. Continual Improvement.
C. Service Request Management.
D. Problem Management.
B
52. Which statement about outputs is CORRECT?
A. They consist of several outcomes.
B. They capture customer demand for services.
C. They contribute to the achievement of outcomes.
D. They describe how the service performs.
C
53. A major incident has been closed, but there is a risk that it might happen again. How should this be logged and managed?
A. As an event.
B. As a problem.
C. As a service request.
D. As a change request.
B
54. What is described by the service value system?
A. How all the components and activities of the organization work together as a system to enable value creation.
B. Services based on one or more products, designed to address needs of a target consumer group.
C. Joint activities performed by a service provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co­creation.
D. How to apply the systems approach of the guiding principle think and work holistically.
A
55. What are the ITIL guiding principles used for?
A. To help an organization make good decisions.
B. To direct and control an organization.
C. To identify activities that an organization must perform in order to deliver a valuable service.
D. To ensure that an organization's performance continually meets stakeholders' expectations.
A
56. Which stakeholders co-create value in a service relationship?
A. Investor and supplier.
B. Consumer and provider.
C. Provider and supplier.
D. Investor and consumer.
B
57. Which will NOT be handled as a service request?
A. The degradation of a service.
B. The replacement of a toner cartridge.
C. The provision of a laptop.
D. A complaint about a support team.
A
58. Which practice needs people who understand complex systems and have creative and analytical skills?
A. Change Control.
B. Service Level Management.
C. Service Request Management.
D. Problem Management.
D
59. Which ITIL practice recommends performing service reviews to ensure that services continue to meet the needs of the organization?
A. Service Desk.
B. Service Request Management.
C. Service Level Management.
D. Service Configuration Management.
C
60. Which usually requires a team of representatives from many stakeholder groups?
A. Fulfilling a service request.
B. Authorizing an Emergency Change.
C. Logging a new problem.
D. Investigating a major incident.
D
61. What are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, CI or Monitoring tool?
A. Incidents.
B. Problems.
C. Events.
D. Requests.
C
62. Which guiding principle is PRIMARILY concerned with end-to-end service delivery?
A. Focus on value.
B. Think and work holistically.
C. Optimize and automate.
D. Collaborate and promote visibility.
B
63. Which of these activities is carried out as part of Problem Management?
A. Creating incident records.
B. Diagnosing and resolving incidents.
C. Escalating incidents to a support team for resolution.
D. Trend analysis of incident records.
D
64. Which statement about the Change Control practice is CORRECT?
A. Standard changes are those that need to be scheduled, assessed and authorized following a standard process.
B. Normal changes are triggered by the creation of a change request which can be created manually or automated.
C. Assessment and Authorization of normal changes should be expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly.
D. There should be a separate change authority for standard changes which includes senior managers who understand the risks involved.
B
65. Which guiding principle considers the importance of customer loyalty?
A. Progress iteratively with feedback.
B. Focus on value.
C. Optimize and automate.
D. Start where you are.
B
66. What actions does a Service Desk take for all issues, queries and requests that are reported to them?
A. Schedule, assess, authorize.
B. Diagnose, investigate, resolve.
C. Initiate, approve, fulfil.
D. Acknowledge, classify, own.
C
67. Which is an external input to the service value chain?
A. The 'improve' value chain activity.
B. An overall plan.
C. Customer requirements.
D. Feedback loops.
C
68. What should be considered as part of the 'partners and suppliers' dimension?
A. The level of integration and formality involved in the relationships between organizations.
B. The activities, workflows, controls and procedures needed to achieve the agreed objectives.
C. The information created, managed and used in the course of service provision and consumption.
D. The required skills and competencies of teams and individual members of the organization.
A
69. Which ITIL practice has the purpose to establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels?
A. Supplier Management.
B. Change Control.
C. Relationship Management.
D. Service Desk.
C
70. A service offering may include goods, access to resources, and service actions. Which is an example of a service action?
A. A mobile phone enables a user to work remotely.
B. A password allows a user connect to a WiFi network.
C. A license allows a user to install a software product.
D. A Service Desk agent provides support to a user.
D
71. Which practice has a purpose to support the quality of the service by handling all agreed user-initiated service requests?
A. Change Control.
B. IT Asset Management.
C. Service Desk.
D. Service Request Management.
C
72. What is the definition of a problem?
A. An unplanned interruption to a service, or reduction in the quality of a service.
B. A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents.
C. An incident for which a full resolution is not yet available.
D. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI).
B
73. What aspect of Service Level Management asks service consumers what their work involves and how technology helps them?
A. Customer engagement.
B. Operational metrics.
C. Business metrics.
D. Customer feedback.
A
74. How should the seven guiding principles be combined when an organization is making a decision?
A. By using all the guiding principles equally when making any decision.
B. By using the one or two guiding principles that are most relevant to the specific decision.
C. By using the 'focus on value' principle and one or two others that are relevant to the specific decision.
D. Review each guiding principle to decide how relevant it is to the specific decision.
D
75. Which directly assists with the diagnosis and resolution of simple incidents?
A. Scripts for collecting user information.
B. Use of shift working patterns.
C. Fulfilment of service requests.
D. Creation of a temporary team.
A
76. Which activity contributes to the 'where are we now?' step of the Continual Improvement model?
A. Executing improvement actions.
B. Performing baseline assessments.
C. Defining the improvement plan.
D. Understanding the business mission.
B
77. Which practice provides a communications point for users to report operational issues, queries and requests?
A. Incident Management.
B. Continual Improvement.
C. Service Desk.
D. Relationship Management.
C
78. Which is an example of a business related measurement?
A. The number of passengers checked in.
B. The average time to respond to change requests.
C. The average resolution time for incidents.
D. The number of problems resolved.
A
79. What can help to reduce resistance to a planned improvement when applying the guiding principle 'collaborate and promote visibility'?
A. Restricting information about the improvement to essential stakeholders only.
B. Increasing collaboration and visibility for the improvement.
C. Involving customers after all planning has been completed.
D. Engaging every stakeholder group in the same way, with the same communication.
C
80. What is the purpose of the Incident Management practice?
A. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible.
B. To capture demand for Incident Resolution and service requests.
C. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents.
D. To support the agreed service quality by effective handling of all agreed user-initiated service requests.
A
81. What varies in size and complexity, and uses functions to achieve its objectives?
A. A risk.
B. An organization.
C. A practice.
D. An outcome.
B
82. Which BEST describes the purpose of the 'improve' value chain activity?
A. To organize a major improvement initiative into several smaller initiatives.
B. To make new and improved services and features available for use.
C. To ensure a shared understanding of the vision and improvement direction for all products and services.
D. To continually improve all products and services across all value chain activities.
D
83. What takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption?
A. Organization.
B. Sponsor.
C. Customer.
D. Service provider.
C
84. Which practice forms a link between the service provider and the users of services?
A. Change Control.
B. Service Level Management.
C. Problem Management.
D. Service Desk.
D
85. Which practice ensures that any addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have an effect on services is assessed and authorized?
A. Deployment Management.
B. Release Management.
C. Change Control.
D. Service Configuration Management.
C
86. Which is a purpose of Release Management?
A. To protect the organization's information.
B. To handle user-initiated service requests.
C. To make new and changed services available for use.
D. To move hardware and software to live environments.
C
87. What is recommended by the guiding principle 'progress iteratively with feedback'?
A. A current state assessment that is carried out at the start of an improvement initiative.
B. The identification of all interested parts at the start of an improvement initiative.
C. An improvement initiative that is broken into a number of manageable sections.
D. An assessment of how all the parts of an organization will affect an improvement initiative.
C
88. Which includes governance, management practices, and Continual Improvement?
A. The service value system.
B. The 'deliver and support' value chain activity.
C. The 'focus on value' guiding principle.
D. The 'value stream and processes' dimension.
A
89. What term is used to describe whether a service will meet availability, capacity and security requirements?
A. Outcomes.
B. Value.
C. Utility.
D. Warranty.
D
90. Which guiding principle considers customer and user experience?
A. Collaborate and promote visibility.
B. Focus on value.
C. Start where you are.
D. Keep it simple and practical.
B
91. Which is a result of applying the guiding principle 'progress iteratively with feedback'?
A.The ability to discover and respond to failure earlier.
B. Standardization of practices and services.
C. Understanding the customer's perception of value.
D. Understanding the current state and identifying what can be reused.
A
92. What describes how components and activities work together to facilitate value creation?
A. The ITIL service value system.
B. The ITIL guiding principles.
C. The four dimensions of service management.
D. A service relationship.
A
93. Which statement about Continual Improvement is CORRECT?
A. All improvement ideas should be logged in a single Continual Improvement register.
B. A single team should carry out Continual Improvement across the organization.
C. Continual Improvement should have minimal interaction with other practices.
D. Everyone in the organization is responsible for some aspects of Continual Improvement.
D
94. What are guiding principles?
A. A set of interconnected activities that help an organization deliver a valuable service.
B. A description of one or more services that help address the needs of a target consumer group.
C. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers.
D. Recommendations that help an organization when adopting a service management approach.
D
95. Which dimension is MOST concerned with skills, competencies, roles and responsibilities?
A. Organizations and people.
B. Information and technology.
C. Partners and suppliers.
D. Value streams and processes.
A
96. Which statement about the Change Enablement practice is CORRECT?
A. Service requests are usually normal changes that can be implemented quickly without Authorization.
B. Emergency Changes are changes that must be fully tested and fully documented prior to implementation.
C. Standard changes are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed and authorized following a standard process.
D. Emergency Changes are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible and therefore Authorization is expedited.
D
97. What can be used to determine if a service is 'fit for purpose'?
A. Availability.
B. Warranty.
C. Outcome.
D. Utility.
D
98. Which practice has a purpose that includes managing risks to confidentiality, integrity and availability?
A. Information security management.
B. Continual Improvement.
C. Monitoring and Event Management.
D. Service Level Management.
A
99. Which is a key activity carried out in the 'did we get there?' step of the Continual Improvement model?
A. Define measurable targets.
B. Perform baseline assessments.
C. Execute improvement actions.
D. Evaluate measurements and metrics.
D
100. What can a service remove from the consumer and impose on the consumer?
A. Utility.
B. Asset.
C. Cost.
D. Outcome.
C
101. What does Change Enablement PRIMARILY focus on?
A. Changes to service levels.
B. Changes to products and services.
C. Changes to organizational structure.
D. Changes to skills and competencies.
B
102. What is a change schedule used for?
A. To help plan Emergency Changes.
B. To help authorize standard changes.
C. To help assign a change authority.
D. To help manage normal changes.
D
103. A change is defined as the addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on [?].
A. Assets.
B. Values.
C. Elements.
D. Services.
D
104. Which is handled as a service request?
A. The failure of an IT service.
B. An Emergency Change to implement a security patch.
C. An investigation to identify the cause of an incident.
D. A compliment about an IT support team.
D
105. Which is a key requirement for a successful service level agreement (SLA)?
A. Using individual metrics that relate to the service catalogue.
B. Using bundled metrics to relate performance to outcomes.
C. Using single-system-based metrics that relate to outputs.
D. Using an agreement between the service provider and service supplier.
B
106. Which is considered by the 'partners and suppliers' dimension?
A. Using artificial intelligence.
B. Defining controls and procedures.
C. Using formal roles and responsibilities.
D. Working with an integrator to manage relationships.
D
107. What impact does automation have on a Service Desk?
A. Less low level work and a greater ability to focus on user experience.
B. Increased phone contact and a reduced ability to focus on user experience.
C. Ability to work from multiple locations, geographically dispersed.
D. Ability to work from a single centralised location.
A
108. An organization asks a stakeholder to review a planned change. Which guiding principle does this demonstrate?
A. Collaborate and promote visibility.
B. Start where you are.
C. Focus on value.
D. Keep it simple and practical.
A
109. Which practice recommends using tools for collaboration and the automated matching of symptoms?
A. Problem Management.
B. Service Level Management.
C. Incident Management.
D. Service Request Management.
C
110. In service relationships, what is a benefit of identifying consumer roles?
A. It enables effective stakeholder management.
B. It provides shared service expectations.
C. It removes constraints from the customer.
D. It enables a common definition of value.
A
111. Which practice would help a user gain access to an application that they need to use?
A. Service Configuration Management.
B. Change Enablement.
C. Service Request Management.
D. Service Level Management.
C
112. What is used to link activities within the service value chain?
A. Service level agreements.
B. Inputs, outputs and triggers.
C. Opportunity, demand and value.
D. Service Desk.
B
113. How are target resolution times used in the Incident Management practice?
A. They are agreed, documented, and communicated to help set user expectations.
B. They are established, reviewed, and reported to ensure that customers are happy with the service.
C. They are initiated, approved, and managed to ensure that predictable responses are achieved.
D. They are scheduled, assessed and authorized to reduce the risk of service failures.
A
114. Which two practices use workarounds?
A. Change Enablement and Continual Improvement.
B. Change Enablement and Problem Management.
C. Problem Management and Incident Management.
D. Incident Management and Continual Improvement.
C
115. Which statement about the service value chain is CORRECT?
A. The service value chain converts value into demand.
B. Each value chain activity uses different combinations of practices to convert inputs into outputs.
C. Each value chain activity identifies a requirement for resources from an external supplier.
D. The service value chain uses value streams to describe a combination of consumers and providers.
B
116. Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence. The Service Desk should be the entry point and single point of contact for the [?] with all of its users.
A. Service consumer.
B. Service provider.
C. Customer.
D. Supplier.
B
117. Which statement about managing incidents is CORRECT?
A. Low impact incidents should be resolved efficiently, making logging unnecessary.
B. The Incident Management practice should use a single process regardless of the impact of the incident.
C. Low impact incidents should be resolved efficiently so the resource required is reduced.
D. Incidents with the lowest impact should be resolved first.
C
118. Which practice has a strong influence on the user experience and perception of the service provider?
A. Service Desk.
B. Change Enablement.
C. Service Level Management.
D. Supplier Management.
A
119. Which will help solve incidents more quickly?
A. Target resolution times.
B. Escalating all incidents to support teams.
C. Collaboration between teams.
D. Detailed procedural steps for incident investigation.
C
120. What is the purpose of the Relationship Management practice?
A. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders.
B. To align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs.
C. To set clear business-based targets for service performance.
D. To support the agreed quality of a service handling all agreed, user-initiated service requests.
A
121. Which describes the utility of a service?
A. A service that is fit for use.
B. A service that meets its service level targets.
C. A service that increases constraints on the consumer.
D. A service that supports the performance of the consumer.
D
122. Why should some service requests be fulfilled with no additional approvals?
A. To ensure that spending is properly accounted for.
B. To ensure that information security requirements are met.
C. To streamline the fulfilment workflow.
D. To set user expectations for fulfilment times.
C
123. Which approach is CORRECT when applying the guiding principle 'keep it simple and practical'?
A. Only add controls and metrics when they are needed.
B. Design controls and metrics first, then remove those not adding value.
C. Design controls and metrics and add them individually until all are implemented.
D. Only add controls and metrics that are required for compliance.
B
124. Which dimension considers data security and privacy?
A. Organizations and people.
B. Information and technology.
C. Partners and suppliers.
D. Value streams and processes.
B
125. Which practice involves the management of vulnerabilities that were not identified before the service went live?
A. Service Request Management.
B. Problem Management.
C. Change Control.
D. Service Level Management.
B
126. Which is a recommendation of the guiding principle 'think and work holistically'?
A. Conduct a review of existing service management practices and decide what to keep and what to discard.
B. Review how an improvement initiative can be organized into smaller, manageable sections that can be completed in a timely manner.
C. Review service management practices and remove any unnecessary complexity.
D. Use the four dimensions of service management to ensure coordination of all aspects of an improvement initiative.
D
127. Which value chain activity ensures that products meet stakeholder expectations for quality?
A. Design and transition.
B. Engage.
C. Obtain/build.
D. Plan.
A
128. What is the purpose of the Problem Management practice?
A. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business.
B. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors.
C. To align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs through the ongoing identification and improvement of services.
D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible.
B
129. Which value chain activity ensures that service components meet agreed specifications?
A. Plan.
B. Design and transition.
C. Obtain / Build.
D. Deliver and support.
C
130. What includes governance as a component?
A. Practices.
B. The service value chain.
C. The service value system.
D. The guiding principles.
C
131. What is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers in the form of services?
A. Service offering.
B. Service provision.
C. Service management.
D. Service consumption.
C
132. Which practice makes new services available for use?
A. Change Control.
B. Release Management.
C. Deployment Management.
D. IT Asset Management.
B
133. Which is an activity of the Problem Management practice?
A. Restoration of normal service operation as quickly as possible.
B. Prioritization of problems based on the risk that they pose.
C. Authorization of changes to resolve the cause of problems.
D. Resolution of incidents in a time that meets customer expectations.
B
134. Which gives a user access to a system?
A. Service requirement.
B. Service agreement.
C. Service consumption.
D. Service provision.
D
135. Which is included in the purpose of the Service Level Management practice?
A. To maximize the number of successful service and product changes.
B. To ensure accurate information about the configuration of services is available.
C. To set clear business-based targets for service levels.
D. To ensure that suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately.
C
136. Which term relates to service levels aligned with the needs of service consumers?
A. Service management.
B. Warranty.
C. Cost.
D. Utility.
B
137. What is the definition of a known error?
A. An unplanned interruption to a service, or reduction in the quality of a service.
B. A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents.
C. A problem that has been analysed and has not been resolved.
D. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item (CI).
C
138. Which statement about the use of measurement in the 'start where you are' guiding principle is CORRECT?
A. It should always be used to support direct observation.
B. It should always be used instead of direct observation.
C. Measured data is always more accurate than direct observation.
D. The act of measuring always positively impacts results.
A
139. Which is the BEST description of the value of a service to a customer?
A. The amount of money the customer pays for using the service.
B. The financial return the customer gets from using the service.
C. The outcomes the customer receives by using the service.
D. The customer's perception of the benefits of using the service.
C
140. Which practice involves the management of vulnerabilities that have been analysed but not resolved?
A. Change Control.
B. Service Request Management.
C. Problem Management.
D. Service Level Management.
C
141. Which is an activity of the Incident Management practice?
A. Assessing and prioritizing improvement opportunities.
B. Performing service reviews with customers.
C. Providing good-quality updates when expected.
D. Automating service requests to the greatest degree possible.
C
142. Which is NOT a component of the service value system?
A. The guiding principles.
B. Governance.
C. Practices.
D. The four dimensions of service management.
D
143. What is defined as a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents?
A. Change.
B. Event.
C. Known error.
D. Problem.
D
144. Which practice is MOST likely to benefit from the use of chatbots?
A. Service Level Management.
B. Change Enablement.
C. Continual Improvement.
D. Service Desk.
D
145. The purpose of the Service Configuration Management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services, and the [?] that support them, is available when and where it is needed.
A. Suppliers.
B. CIs.
C. Customers.
D. Assets.
B
146. Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?
A. Outcomes are one or more services that fulfill the needs of a service consumer.
B. Service providers help service consumers achieve outcomes.
C. Outcomes help service consumers achieve outputs.
D. Helping service consumers achieve outcomes reduces service provider costs.
B
147. Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?
A. An outcome can be enabled by more than one output.
B. Outcomes are how the service performs.
C. An output can be enabled by one or more outcomes.
D. An outcome is a tangible or intangible activity.
A
148. Which is a purpose of the 'engage' value chain activity?
A. Meeting expectations for quality, costs and time-to-market.
B. Providing transparency and good relationships.
C. Ensuring the Continual Improvement of services.
D. Ensuring that the organization's vision is understood.
B
149. Which statement about service requests is CORRECT?
A. Complex service requests should be dealt with as normal changes.
B. Service requests that require simple workflows should be dealt with as incidents.
C. Service requests require workflows that should use manual procedures and avoid automation.
D. Service requests are usually formalized using standard procedures for initiation, approval and fulfilment.
D
150. Which practice is responsible for moving new or changed components to live or other environments?
A. Release Management.
B. Deployment Management.
C. Change Enablement.
D. Supplier Management.
B
151. Which dimension focuses on relationships with other organizations that are involved in the design, development, deployment and delivery of services?
A. Organizations and people.
B. Information and technology.
C. Partners and suppliers.
D. Value streams and processes.
C
152. What must always be done before an activity is automated?
A. Check that the activity has already been optimized.
B. Check that suitable new technology has been purchased.
C. Ensure that DevOps has been successfully implemented.
D. Ensure the solution removes the need for human intervention.
A
153. Which two statements about an organization's culture are CORRECT?

1. It is created from shared values based on how it carries out its work
2. It is determined by the type of technology used to support services
3. It should be based on the culture of prospective suppliers
4. It should be based on the objectives of the organization
A. 1 and 2.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 3 and 4.
D. 1 and 4.
D
154. Which statement about the automation of service requests is CORRECT?
A. Service requests that cannot be automated should be handled as incidents.
B. Service requests and their fulfilment should be automated as much as possible.
C. Service requests that cannot be automated should be handled as problems.
D. Service requests and their fulfilment should be carried out by Service Desk staff without automation.
B
155. What is the purpose of the Deployment Management practice?
A. To ensure services achieve agreed and expected performance.
B. To make new or changed services available for use.
C. To move new or changed components to live environments.
D. To set clear business-based targets for service performance.
C
156. What is a change schedule PRIMARILY used for?
A. To help plan Emergency Changes.
B. To help authorize standard changes.
C. To help assign a change authority.
D. To help manage normal changes.
D
157. Which can act as an operating model for an organization?
A. The four dimensions of service management.
B. The service value chain.
C. The ITIL guiding principles.
D. Continual Improvement.
B
158. What is an IT asset?
A. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to delivery of an IT product or service.
B. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver a service.
C. A request from a user mat initiates a service action.
D. The removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services.
A
159. Which is a key requirement for a successful service level agreement?
A. It should be written in legal language.
B. It should be simply written and easy to understand.
C. It should be based on the service provider's view of the service.
D. It should relate to simple operational metrics.
B
160. Which role approves the cost of services?
A. User.
B. Change authority.
C. Sponsor.
D. Customer.
C
161. What is warranty?
A. Assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements.
B. The amount of money spent on a specific activity or resource.
C. The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need.
D. The perceived benefits, usefulness and importance of something.
A
162. What are the three phases of Problem Management?
A. Problem logging, problem classification, problem resolution.
B. Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Enablement.
C. Problem identification, problem control, error control.
D. Problem analysis, error identification, Incident Resolution.
C
163. Where are the details of the required performance outcomes of a service defined?
A. Service level agreements.
B. Service requests.
C. Service components.
D. Service offerings.
A
164. Which skill is an essential part of the Service Level Management practice?
A. Technical knowledge.
B. Listening.
C. Diagnosis.
D. Problem analysis.
B
165. Which practice requires that staff demonstrate excellent customer service skills, such as empathy and emotional intelligence?
A. Problem Management.
B. Supplier Management.
C. Release Management.
D. Service Desk.
D
166. Which value chain activity ensures a shared understanding of the current status and required direction for all products and services?
A. Plan.
B. Improve.
C. Design and transition.
D. Deliver and support.
A
167. What is defined as any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service?
A. A service request.
B. A configuration item (CI).
C. An incident.
D. An IT asset.
B
168. Which practice has the purpose of ensuring that the organization's suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to support the provision of seamless, quality products and services?
A. Release Management.
B. Supplier Management.
C. Service management.
D. Relationship Management.
B
169. Which practice recommends the use of event-based surveys to gather feedback from customers?
A. Service Level Management.
B. Change Enablement.
C. Service Request Management.
D. Problem Management.
A
170. How does information about problems and known errors contribute to Incident Management?
A. It enables quick and efficient diagnosis of incidents.
B. It removes the need for regular customer updates.
C. It removes the need for collaboration during Incident Resolution.
D. It enables the reassessment of known errors.
A
171. Which describes a standard change?
A. A change that needs to be scheduled, assessed and authorized following a defined process.
B. A change that is typically implemented as a service request.
C. A high-risk change that needs very thorough assessment.
D. A change that must be implemented as soon as possible.
B
172. Which service level metrics are BEST for measuring user experience?
A. Single system-based metrics.
B. Metrics for the percentage of uptime of a service.
C. Operational metrics.
D. Metrics linked to defined outcomes.
D
173. Which is a service request?
A Requesting a workaround for an issue.
B. Requesting information about how to create a document.
C. Requesting an enhancement to an application.
D. Requesting investigation of a degraded service.
B
174. Which two practices interact the MOST with the Service Desk practice?
A. Incident Management and Service Request Management.
B Service Request Management and Deployment Management.
C. Deployment Management and Change Enablement.
D. Change Enablement and Incident Management.
A
175. What is defined as an unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of a service?
A. An incident.
B. A problem.
C. A change.
D. An event.
A
176. Which describes normal changes?
A. Changes that are low-risk and pre-authorized.
B. Changes that need to be scheduled and assessed following a process.
C. Changes that are typically initiated as service requests.
D. Changes that must be implemented as soon as possible.
B
177. The management of information security incidents usually requires [?].
A. Immediate escalation.
B. Specialist teams.
C. A separate process.
D. Third party support.
C
178. Which statement about change authorities is CORRECT?
A. Change authorities are only required for authorizing Emergency Changes.
B. Change authorities are assigned when each change is deployed.
C. Change authorities are only required for authorizing normal changes.
D. Change authorities are assigned for each type of change and change model.
D
179. What defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption?
A. An IT asset.
B. A customer.
C. A configuration item (CI).
D. A user.
B
180. Which practice owns and manages issues, queries and requests from users?
A. Incident Management.
B. Service Desk.
C. Change Control.
D. Problem Management.
B
181. What are the MOST important skills required by Service Desk staff?
A. Incident Analysis skills.
B. Technical skills.
C. Problem resolution skills.
D. Supplier Management skills.
A
182. Which practice improves customer and user satisfaction by reducing the negative impact of service interruptions?
A. Service Request Management.
B. Service Level Management.
C. Incident Management.
D. Change Enablement.
C
183. What is the expected outcome from using a service value chain?
A. Service value streams.
B. Customer engagement.
C. Value realization.
D. The application of practices.
C
184. Which practice has a purpose that includes observing a service to report selected changes of state identified as events?
A. Information security management.
B. Monitoring and Event Management.
C. Incident Management.
D. Change Control.
B
185. Which guiding principle helps to ensure that better information is available for decision making?
A. Keep it simple and practical.
B. Think and work holistically.
C. Optimize and automate.
D. Collaborate and promote visibility.
D
186. What helps diagnose and resolve a simple incident?
A. Rapid escalation.
B. Formation of a temporary team.
C. The use of scripts.
D. Problem Prioritization.
C
187. A user is [?] that uses services.
A. An organization.
B. A role.
C. A team.
D. A supplier.
B
188. When should a change request be submitted to resolve a problem?
A. As soon as a solution for the problem has been identified.
B. As soon as a workaround for the problem has been identified.
C. As soon as the analysis of the frequency and impact of incidents justifies the change.
D. As soon as the analysis of cost, risks and benefits justifies the change.
C
189. When planning Continual Improvement, which approach for assessing the current state of a service is CORRECT?
A. An organization should always use a single technique to ensure metrics are consistent.
B. An organization should always use a strength, weakness, opportunity and threat (SWOT) analysis.
C. An organization should always develop competencies in methodologies and techniques that will meet their needs.
D. An organization should always use an approach that combines Lean, Agile and DevOps methodologies.
B
190. Which is included in the purpose of the Change Enablement practice?
A. Make new and changed services available for use.
B. Ensure that risks have been properly assessed.
C. Record and report selected changes of state.
D. Plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets.
B
191. How does a service consumer contribute to the reduction of risk?
A. By paying for the service.
B. By managing server hardware.
C. By communicating constraints.
D. By managing staff availability.
C
192. The purpose of the Supplier Management practice is to ensure that the organization's suppliers and their [?] are managed appropriately to support the seamless provision of quality products and services.
A. Costs.
B. Users.
C. Value.
D. Performances.
D
193. Which dimension considers how knowledge assets should be protected?
A. Organizations and people.
B. Partners and suppliers.
C. Information and technology.
D. Value streams and processes.
C
194. Which guiding principle recommends standardizing and streamlining manual tasks?
A. Optimize and automate.
B. Collaborate and promote visibility.
C. Focus on value.
D. Think and work holistically.
A
195. Which guiding principle recommends eliminating activities that do not contribute to the creation of value?
A. Start where you are.
B. Collaborate and promote visibility.
C. Keep it simple and practical.
D. Optimize and automate.
C
196. What is a recommendation of the 'focus on value' guiding principle?
A. Make 'focus on value' a responsibility of the management.
B. Focus on the value of new and significant projects first.
C. Focus on value for the service provider first.
D. Focus on value at every step of the improvement.
D
197. Which is part of service provision?
A. The management of resources configured to deliver the service.
B. The management of resources needed to consume the service.
C. The grouping of one or more services based on one or more products.
D. The joint activities performed to ensure continual value co-creation.
A
198. When should a full risk assessment and Authorization be carried out for a standard change?
A. Each time the standard change is implemented.
B. When the procedure for the standard change is created.
C. At least once a year.
D. When an Emergency Change is requested.
B
199. Which statement about a Continual Improvement register is CORRECT?
A. It should be managed at the senior level of the organization.
B. It should be used to capture user demand.
C. There should only be one for the whole organization.
D. It should be re-prioritized as ideas are documented.
D
200. Which is included in the purpose of the 'design and transition' value chain activity?
A. Ensuring that service components are available when needed.
B. Providing transparency and good stakeholder relationships.
C. Supporting services according to specifications.
D. Continually meeting stakeholder expectations for costs.
D
201. Which is included in the purpose of the 'deliver and support' value chain activity?
A. Meeting stakeholder expectations for time to market.
B. Understanding the organization's service vision.
C. Understanding stakeholder needs.
D. Providing services to agreed specifications.
D
202. Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication of service requests and incidents?
A. Supplier Management.
B. Service Desk.
C. Problem Management.
D. Relationship Management.
B
203. Which practice updates information relating to symptoms and business impact?
A. Service Level Management.
B. Change Control.
C. Service Request Management.
D. Incident Management.
D
204. Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and tools when improving services?
A. Progress iteratively with feedback.
B. Keep is simple and practical.
C. Start where you are.
D. Focus on value.
C
205. What is an incident?
A. The planned removal of an item that might affect a service.
B. A result enabled by one or more outputs.
C. A possible future event that could cause harm.
D. A service interruption resolved by the use of self-help tools.
D
206. What is defined as a change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service?
A. Event.
B. Incident.
C. Problem.
D. Known error.
A
207. Which dimension includes the knowledge needed for the management of services?
A. Organizations and people.
B. Partners and suppliers.
C. Value streams and processes.
D. Information and technology.
D
208. What is the PRIMARY use of a change schedule?
A. To support the Incident Management practice and improvement planning.
B. To manage Emergency Changes.
C. To manage standard changes.
D. To plan changes and help avoid conflicts.
D
209. Which guiding principle focuses on reducing costs and human errors?
A. Focus on value.
B. Collaborate and promote visibility.
C. Optimize and automate.
D. Think and work holistically.
C
210. Which guiding principle helps to ensure that each improvement effort has more focus and is easier to maintain?
A. Start where you are.
B. Collaborate and promote visibility.
C. Think and work holistically.
D. Progress iteratively with feedback.
D
211. What is important for a Continual Improvement register (CIR)?
A. Improvement ideas are tested, funded and agreed.
B. Improvement ideas that are not being actioned immediately are removed from the CIR.
C. Improvement ideas from many sources are kept in a single CIR.
D. Improvement ideas are documented, assessed and prioritized.
D
212. Which is a purpose of the Service Level Management practice?
A. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders.
B. To ensure that the organization's suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately.
C. To support the agreed quality of a service by handling all agreed, user-initiated service requests.
D. To set clear business-based targets for service levels.
D
213. What describes the steps needed to create and deliver a specific service to a consumer?
A. Service management..
B. Practices.
C. A value stream.
D. Service Level Management.
C
214. Which helps to manage an incident when it is unclear which support team should be working on the incident?
A. Disaster recovery plans.
B. Swarming.
C. Target resolution times.
D. Self-help.
B
215. Which statement about the Continual Improvement practice is CORRECT?
A. Continual Improvement participation should be limited to a small dedicated team.
B. It is the role of senior management to authorize improvement initiatives.
C. Training should be provided to those involved in Continual Improvement.
D. A single Continual Improvement register should be maintained by senior management.
B
216. Which does the ITIL service value system discourage?
A. Organizational agility.
B. Interfaces among practices.
C. Coordinated authorities and responsibilities.
D. Organizational silos.
D
217. An SLA is a service level agreement. Which describes the 'watermelon SLA' effect?
A. Introducing SLAs for a service enables customers to see that the service provider is doing a really good job, so this improves satisfaction.
B. SLA targets change very frequently, so that each report includes new measures and trends cannot be analyzed.
C. A single SLA defines target service levels for multiple customers, so every customer sees reports about other customers' experiences.
D. The metrics in an SLA are focused on internal measures, so that reports show everything is good, while the customer is not satisfied.
D
218. Which practice includes conducting regular reviews to ensure that services are still appropriate and relevant?
A. Change Enablement.
B. Continual Improvement.
C. Service Desk.
D. Service Level Management.
D
219. What is a service?
A. Joint activities performed by a service provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co-creation based on agreed and available service offerings.
B. A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity.
C. A possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives.
D. A means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks.
D
220. Which TWO are important aspects of the Service Request Management practice?

1. Standardization and automation
2. Providing a variety of channels for access
3. Establishing a shared view of targets
4. Policies for approvals
A. 1 and 2.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 3 and 4.
D. 1 and 4.
D
221. What is required by all Service Desk staff?
A. Excellent technical knowledge.
B. Root cause analysis skills.
C. Demonstration of emotional intelligence.
D. Knowledge of telephony technology.
C
222. Which practice establishes a channel between the service provider and its users?
A. Relationship Management.
B. Change Enablement.
C. Supplier Management.
D. Service Desk.
D
223. Which practice includes the use of approaches such as Lean, Agile and DevOps with the aim of facilitating a greater amount of change at a quicker rate?
A. Service Desk.
B. Monitoring and Event Management.
C. Service Level Management.
D Continual Improvement.
D
224. Which practice has a purpose that includes maximizing success by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?
A. Monitoring and Event Management.
B. Release Management.
C. Relationship Management.
D. Change Enablement.
D
225. Which practice provides users with a way to get various requests arranged, explained and coordinated?
A. Service Level Management.
B. Relationship Management.
C. Continual Improvement.
D. Service Desk.
D
226. Which helps to streamline the fulfilment of service requests?
A. Eliminating service requests which have complex workflows.
B. Separating requests relating to service failures from the degradation of services.
C. Creating new workflows for every service request.
D. Understanding which service requests can be accomplished with limited approvals.
D
227. Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?
A. They are deliverables provided to service consumers.
B. They provide products to service providers based on outputs.
C. They co-create value for service providers by reducing costs and risks.
D. They allow service consumers to achieve a desired result.
D
228. Which guiding principle says that services and processes should NOT provide a solution for every exception?
A. Optimize and automate.
B. Think and work holistically.
C. Collaborate and promote visibility.
D. Keep it simple and practical.
D
229. Identify the missing word in the following sentence.

The purpose of the Supplier Management practice is to ensure that the organization's suppliers and their performances are [?] appropriately to support the seamless provision of quality products and services.
A. Measured.
B. Rewarded.
C. Defined.
D. Managed.
D
230. The purpose of the Service Configuration Management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the [?], and the CIs that support them, is available when and where it is needed.
A. Relationships with suppliers.
B. Authorization of changes.
C. Skills of people.
D. Configuration of services.
D
231. Which practice requires skills and competencies related to business analysis, Supplier Management and Relationship Management?
A. Incident Management.
B. Monitoring and Event Management.
C. IT Asset Management.
D. Service Level Management.
D
232. When should a workaround be created?
A. As soon as possible, once the incident is logged.
B. After the resolution of a problem.
C. When a potential permanent solution has been identified.
D. When a problem cannot be resolved quickly.
D
233. What is a configuration item?
A. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service.
B. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service.
C. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service.
D. A problem that has been analyzed but has not been resolved.
C
234. When an organization has decided to improve a service, it should start by considering [?].
A. Revised processes.
B. Additional measurements.
C. New methods.
D. Existing information.
D
235. Which are elements of the service value system?
A. Service provision, service consumption, service Relationship Management.
B. Governance, service value chain, practices.
C. Outcomes, utility, warranty.
D. Customer value, stakeholder value, organization.
B
236. Which is a use of the change schedule?
A. Assigning resources to changes.
B. Deciding the approval authority for changes.
C. Automating the change process.
D. Creating change models.
A
237. Which dimension of service management considers the workflows and controls needed to deliver services?
A. Organizations and people.
B. Information and technology.
C. Partners and suppliers.
D. Value streams and processes.
D
238. Which guiding principle considers how the steps of a process can be performed as efficiently as possible?
A. Optimize and automate.
B. Think and work holistically.
C. Start where you are.
D. Focus on value.
A
239. Which statement about the Incident Management practice is CORRECT?
A. It resolves the highest impact incidents first.
B. It maintains detailed procedures for diagnosing incidents.
C. It authorizes changes to resolve incidents.
D. It identifies the cause of major incidents.
A
240. How should an organization prioritize incidents?
A. Use an agreed classification which is based on the business impact of the incident.
B. Assess the availability of the appropriate support team.
C. Ask the user for their preferred resolution timeframe.
D. Create an order of incidents based on the dates and times when they were logged.
A
241. Which is a purpose of the Relationship Management practice?
A. To identify, analyze, monitor, and continually improve links with stakeholders.
B. To systematically observe services and service components.
C. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business.
D. To be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users.
A
242. Which statement about problems is CORRECT?
A. Problem Prioritization involves risk assessment.
B. Problem analysis should focus on one of the four dimensions to achieve a fast diagnosis.
C. Problems must be resolved quickly in order to restore normal business activity.
D. Problems are not related to incidents.
A
243. Which is a risk that might be removed from a service consumer by an IT service?
A. Security breach.
B. Service provider ceasing to trade.
C. Failure of server hardware.
D. Cost of purchasing servers.
A
244. Which is one of the MAIN concerns of the 'design and transition' value chain activity?
A. Meeting stakeholder expectations.
B. Understanding the organization's vision.
C. Understanding stakeholder needs.
D. Ensuring service components are available.
A
245. Which should be handled by Service Request Management?
A. A request to provide a laptop.
B. A request to implement a security patch.
C. A request to resolve an error in a service.
D. A request to change a target in a service level agreement.
A
246. What can be described as an operating model for the creation and management of products and services?
A. Service value chain.
B. Governance.
C. Guiding principles.
D. Practices.
A
247. Which action is performed by a service provider?
A. Ensuring access to agreed resources.
B. Requesting required service actions.
C. Authorizing budget for service consumption.
D. Receiving of the agreed goods.
A
248. Which step of the Continual Improvement model includes baseline assessments?
A. Where are we now?.
B. Did we get there?.
C. What is the vision?.
D. Where do we want to be?.
A
249. Which describes a 'change authority'?
A. A person who approves a change.
B A model used to determine who will assess a change.
C. A tool used to help plan changes.
D. A way to manage the people aspects of change.
A
250. Which is NOT a component of the service value system?
A. Opportunity and demand.
B. The service value chain.
C. Continual Improvement.
D. Governance.
A
251. Which statement about service Relationship Management is CORRECT?
A. It requires co-operation of both the service provider and service consumer.
B. It focuses on the service actions performed by users.
C. It requires the service consumer to create resources for the service provider.
D. It focuses on the fulfilment of the agreed service actions.
A
252. What is the MOST important reason for prioritizing incidents?
A. To ensure that incidents with highest impact are resolved first.
B To ensure that user expectations are realistic.
C. To help information-sharing and learning.
D. To provide links to related changes and known errors.
A
253. Which Service Level Management activity helps staff to deliver a more business-focused service?
A. Understanding the ongoing requirements of customers.
B. Creating targets based on the percentage of uptime of a service.
C. Using complex technical terminology in service level agreements (SLAs).
D. Measuring low-level operational activities.
A
254. Which practice has a purpose that includes the handling of pre-defined, user-initiated demands for service?
A. Service Request Management.
B. Service Configuration Management.
C. Deployment Management.
D. Change Enablement.
A
255. Which guiding principle considers which parts of an existing process should be kept by identifying how they contribute to value creation?
A. Keep it simple and practical.
B. Think and work holistically.
C. Collaborate and promote visibility.
D. Progress iteratively with feedback.
A
256. What is the purpose of the Monitoring and Event Management practice?
A. To systematically observe services and service components.
B. To capture demand for Incident Resolution and service requests.
C. To manage workarounds and known errors.
D. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible.
A
257. Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?
A. Outcomes rely on outputs to deliver results for a stakeholder.
B. Outcomes use activities to produce tangible or intangible deliverables.
C. Outcomes give service consumers assurance of products or services.
D. Outcomes help a service consumer to assess the cost of a specific activity.
A
258. Which skill is required by the Service Level Management practice?
A. Supplier Management.
B. Technical expertise.
C. Event Monitoring.
D. Problem Management.
A
259. Which statement about the Continual Improvement model is CORRECT?
A. Organizations should work through the steps of the model in the sequence in which they are presented.
B. The flow of the model helps organizations to link improvements to its goals.
C. The model is applicable to only certain parts of the service value system.
D. Organizations should use an additional model or method to link improvements to customer value.
A
260. What is the definition of warranty?
A. A means of determining whether a service is fit for use.
B. A means of identifying a result for a stakeholder.
C. A means of determining whether a service is fit for purpose.
D. A means of identifying events that could cause harm or loss.
A
261. Which practice has a purpose that includes managing risks relating to confidentiality, integrity and availability?
A. Information security management.
B. Problem Management.
C. Change Enablement.
D. Service Configuration Management.
A